Shairi issues of islamic sisters

Question

What do the scholars of Islam say about the following: During a nikah, bridal money (mahr) was mentioned. However, it was not given immediately, nor was a date specified for this. When does a woman have the right to demand this?

Answer:

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

According to shari’ah, if bridal money was not given immediately at the time of the nikah, nor was a date fixed for it to be given afterwards, it is then due at the time of divorce or death of the husband. Therefore, a woman cannot demand it until her husband dies or she is divorced. The demanding of bridal money is dependent upon social norms, and in the subcontinent, it is understood that bridal money is deferred until death or divorce, if the time for giving it was not specified during the nikah. The woman can only demand bridal money if she is divorced, or her husband dies. The bridal money will also become immediately due if the woman dies, with her inheritors being the deserving party, even if the husband himself is amongst them.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question

What do the blessed ‘Ulama [Islamic scholars] and Muftis [Islamic jurists] state regarding the following matter: Can a woman, observing ‘Iddat after her husband’s demise, go to different rooms of the house? Moreover, is it right or not for her to go to the courtyard as well? We have heard from the people that a woman can neither go from one room to another nor to the courtyard. Please give us guidance on this matter.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

The Shar’i ruling states that it is compulsory for a woman observing Iddat to spend her Iddat [period] in the same house of her husband and the entire house is called a single house, so its different rooms and courtyard all combine to form one single place. Therefore, such a woman can go to all the rooms of that house and sit in the courtyard as well, ensuring that purdah is observed; there is no harm in it. However, if one portion of the house belongs to the husband and rest part is owned by someone else such as a big house is sometimes jointly owned by the brothers but then it is properly divided by specifying each person’s limit, then in this case, the woman observing Iddat will have permission only to go to the portion owned by her husband, not to the rest part [of the house]. Moreover, if there are many portions in a house such as in flats, she can only reside in the portion owned by her husband, not in the other part. Furthermore, if the courtyard is also jointly owned [by different people] such as an apartment consists of many houses and one single courtyard, she will also not have permission to go to this courtyard jointly owned [by the people] because the status of this courtyard is now like a pathway.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered by:

Abu Huzayfah Shafeeq Raza Attari Madani

Answered by:

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

Purdah for a woman with her non-Mahram Peer-o-Murshid [spiritual guide]

Question : 02

What do the blessed ‘Ulama state regarding the following matter: Can a young woman go in front of her non-Mahram Peer-o-Murshid with uncovered hair, wrists and face, or not?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

As it is Fard [obligatory] for a woman to observe purdah with any non-Mahram man, in the same way, it is also Fard for a woman to observe purdah with her non-Mahram Peer-o-Murshid as the ruling on the matter of purdah is the same for both. Therefore, it is Haraam for a woman to go in front of her non-Mahram Peer [spiritual guide] with uncovered hair or wrists and similarly, going with uncovered face is also strictly prohibited.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered by:

Abu Huzayfah Shafeeq Raza Attari Madani

Answered by:

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

What do the scholars and Muftis of Islam say regarding the following matter: Can I marry the son of my mother’s maternal aunt?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

A: You can marry the son of your mother’s maternal aunt, if there is nothing preventing the nikah from taking place, such as a milk-relationship through breastfeeding (raḍāʿa) and ḥurmat al-muṣāhara. This is because to him—i.e., he son of your mother’s maternal aunt—you are his maternal aunt’s daughter’s daughter. The general principle for marriage is that it is forbidden to marry one’s direct descendent (farʿ)—i.e., one’s daughter, granddaughter, great-granddaughter, and so forth, regardless of how far down the lineage—and to one’s direct antecedent (aṣl)—i.e., one’s mother, grandmother, great-grandmother, and so forth, regardless of how far up the lineage. It is also forbidden to marry the direct descendent of one’s close antecedent, such as the children of one’s parents or the children of the children of one’s parents, and so forth. Moreover, marriage to the close direct descendent of one’s distant antecedent, such as the children of one’s grandfather, great-grandfather, grandmother, or great-grandmother, is also forbidden. It is permissible for a person to marry the distant descendent of his distant antecedent, for example, the grandchildren of one’s grandfather, great-grandfather, grandmother, or great-grandmother. Considering this principle, you are a distant descendent, i.e., the great-granddaughter, of your mother’s maternal aunt’s son’s distant antecedent, i.e., grandmother. Therefore, your marriage to him is valid.

وَاللهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Does the nikah of a woman end when she dies?

Q: What do the scholars and Muftis of Islam say about the following matter: Is it true that when a woman dies, her nikah comes to an end, due to which her husband cannot look at her face? Some people claim that he can look at her face before she is shrouded, but not after that. What is the correct view in this regard? Also, if the husband dies, then why does the Nikah not come to an end?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

A: Yes, it is correct that the nikah of a woman ends as soon as she dies, which is why a husband can no longer touch the body of his deceased wife without a physical barrier between them. However, the husband can still look at the face of his deceased wife, before the shrouding and after it too, and he can even look at her face after she is placed into the grave. It is prohibited for an unrelated man to look at the face of a deceased woman. It should be remembered that when the husband dies, the marriage of a woman does not immediately come to an end because the woman is now in the sitting period (ʿidda) of that nikah. Until her sitting period does not elapse, the nikah remains intact. Therefore, a woman cannot marry another man during her sitting period.

وَاللهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question : 01

What do the blessed Ulama [Islamic scholars] state regarding the following matter: Can a woman cut nails during her monthly cycle and postnatal bleeding, or not? Please explain it in the light of Holy Quran and Hadees.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

If a woman’s monthly cycle or postnatal bleeding has ended [and she has become pure from that state] but she has not performed Ghusl [ritual bath] yet, it is Makruh [disliked act] for her to cut nails in this state as she is in the state of Hadas [state of impurity mentioned by Shari’ah] from the very moment her monthly cycle or postnatal bleeding has ended, and Ghusl has become Fard [obligatory] on her at that time. In this state, she is now like a Junubi [person on whom Ghusl is Fard]; as it is Makruh for a Junubi to cut nails in the state of Janabat [state of impurity when Ghusl is Fard], it is Makruh for her as well. However, if her monthly cycle or postnatal bleeding has not ended yet [and she has not become pure from that state], she can cut nails in the same state because she is not in the state of Hadas yet and Ghusl is not Fard on her. In this state, she is like a non-Junubi in this matter.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered By :

Muhammad Naveed Chishti

Approved By :

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

Can a woman also be a Peer [spiritual guide]?

Question 02 :

What do the blessed Ulama and Muftis [Islamic jurists] state regarding the following matter: Can a woman also be a Peer [spiritual guide], and can women become her Mureeds [disciples], or not?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

It is necessary for a Peer-o-Murshid to be a male person. Therefore, from [the era of] pious predecessors until now, any woman did not become a Peer. So, a woman is not permitted to become a Peer-o-Murshid and make Mureeds. Moreover, no woman is allowed to become a Mureed of any woman. Therefore, women should also become Mureed of a perfect Peer-o-Murshid who fulfils the Shar’i conditions.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered By :

Abu Huzayfah Shafeeq Raza Attari Madani

Approved By :

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

What if a woman’s monthly cycle begins after the time of Salah has started?

Question 03:

What do the blessed Ulama and Muftis state regarding the following matter: If a woman’s monthly cycle begins after the time of Salah has started, is it compulsory for her to offer the missed Salah of that time after attaining purity? Questioner: Bint-e-Junayd Attari (Rawalpindi)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

If the time of Salah has started and a woman has not yet offered Salah but her monthly cycle or postnatal bleeding begins, it is not compulsory for her to offer that missed Salah after attaining purity because the Haqeeqi [actual] reason for ‘Salah being Fard’ is the Divine commandment, and the apparent reason is ‘time’. Fard is regarded as performed if Salah is offered in any part of this time [period]. It is not compulsory to offer Salah in the beginning part of the time period. As people have this choice, if a person delays offering Salah in the beginning of the time period and such an Uzr [situation] affects him or her due to which a person becomes exempt from offering Salah, then offering Salah of that time is not obligatory [for such a person], and offering this missed Salah is also not compulsory.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

Question : 01

What do the Scholars of Islam and Muftis of the blessed Shari’ah say regarding the following matter: A woman has some gold and cash with which she can gather the expenses for her own Hajj, but not for a Mahram. In this case, would Hajj be obligatory upon her?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

If a woman possesses enough wealth with which she can perform her own Hajj, but she does not have enough wealth to provide the expenses of a Mahram and he too is not willing to travel without her providing the expenses, then if the other conditions that make Hajj obligatory are found, Hajj will be obligatory upon her but its fulfilment will only be Wajib when she has the ability to provide the expenses of the Mahram or if he agrees to travel without her providing for his expenses. If the woman does not gain the ability to gather the expenses of the Mahram throughout her life and neither is he willing to travel without his expenses being paid for, then it is Wajib upon the woman to make a will prior to her death that Hajj-e-Badal be performed on her behalf. If she does not do so, she will be sinful. Keep in mind that the reason why it is necessary for the woman to travel with a Mahram when performing Hajj is because it is a condition for the woman to be accompanied by her husband or a trustworthy Mahram when travelling on a Shar’i journey (the distance of which is approximately 92km) for Hajj, Umrah or any other purpose. Without this, it is impermissible, Haraam and a sin for her to travel the Shar’i journey (i.e. more than 92km). Since the distance from Pakistan to Makkah is much more than the minimum Shar’i distance of a journey, hence it is not permissible for a woman to travel without her husband or Mahram. Note: To learn the detailed rulings of Hajj, refer to Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol.1, part 6.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

Written by: Mufti Qasim Attari

An important ruling about the ‘Iddat (waiting period) of a woman

Question 02 :

What do the Scholars of Islam and the Muftis of the blessed Shari’ah say regarding the following matter: A woman aged 28 was divorced by her husband on 24th November. She gave birth seven months ago and for forty days after the childbirth, she had post-natal bleeding. From the time she attained purity until now, she has not had menses. Now, how long will her ‘Iddat be? The doctor has said that as long as she breastfeeds the baby, the situation with her menses will remain the same and she will have menses after one or two years. Please provide guidance in this matter.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

The ruling of Shari’ah is that a Baalighah woman who is not pregnant and neither has she reached the age of menopause (i.e. 55 years), her ‘Iddat for divorce is three menses. Therefore, in the aforementioned case, the ‘Iddat of the 28-year-old woman will finish after the passing of three menses, regardless of whether they take two years or more to occur. However, in this situation, if a woman has reached the age of menopause (i.e. 55 years) and menses do not occur, then her ‘Iddat will be of three months.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

Answered by:

Abu Huzayfah Muhammad Shafeeq Attari Madani

Verified by:

Mufti Muhammad Qasim Attari

Question : 01

What do the Islamic scholars and blessed Muftis of the sacred religion say regarding the following issue: Can a woman give a valuable gift to her mother without seeking permission from her husband?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

If the woman wants to give her mother a gift out of her own pocket, whether expensive or cheap, she is allowed to give it without taking permission from her husband. However, taking permission from him in order to please him and having courtesy for him is better, as it usually plays a very big role in strengthening the family relationship. If she wants to give a gift to her mother or anyone else from the wealth of her husband, whether expensive or cheap, she is not allowed to do that without seeking permission from her husband. It is necessary to take his permission in this case. Permission might be of two types; explicit and implicit. For example, if some guest comes while the husband is not at home, so according to the norms prevalent in our society, it is allowed to serve the guest with something ordinary. Therefore, the wife can spend as much money from the wealth of the husband as he has given permission for, whether explicitly or implicitly. Apart from it, it is essential to take permission from the husband before giving anything to anyone.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ تَعَالٰی عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answer given by:

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

Breastfeeding the baby when Ghusl is Fard

Question:

What do the Islamic scholars and blessed Muftis of the sacred religion say regarding the following issue: If Ghusl is Fard due to Janabat (i.e. impurity), can a woman breastfeed the baby in this state or not?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Janabat is not Haqeeqiyyah impurity but rather it is Hukmiyyah, i.e. the blessed Shari’ah has forbidden certain deeds in this state such as offering Salah, reciting the Holy Quran, entering the Masjid, etc. But the sweat, saliva etc., of the Junubi person remain pure. Therefore, the milk of the woman is pure even when Ghusl is Fard for her. And it is also permissible to suckle the baby in this state because purity is not necessary for this purpose. Admonition: Remember! One whom Ghusl is Fard for, should not delay in taking bath. If he does not perform Ghusl for the time being, so he should at least make Wudu because angels do not come near a Junubi person. Performing Ghusl or making Wudu without delay is neither Fard nor Wajib. This is Mustahab. Therefore, if anyone delays in performing Ghusl without any reason, he will not be a sinner. However, it should not be delayed to the extent that time for Salah passes or Makruh Tahreemi time starts; delaying to this extent is undoubtedly impermissible. If he delays to this extent, he will certainly become a sinner.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ تَعَالٰی عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answer given by:

Fuzayl Raza Attari

Question : 01

What do the blessed Ulama [Islamic scholars] state regarding the following matter: Can a woman cut nails during her monthly cycle and postnatal bleeding, or not? Please explain it in the light of Holy Quran and Hadees.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Doing make-up or charging money for it is a permissible act provided that one refrains from Shari’ah-prohibited deeds. Both, permissible and impermissible services are provided in a beauty parlour. Following are some of the impermissible

services generally provided in a beauty parlour:

1. Plucking eyebrows: This act has been cursed in the blessed Hadees.

2. Cutting hair in a masculine style: The women who imitate men have been cursed in the blessed Hadees.

3. Removing the hairs of thighs: For a woman, the portion from the navel up to and including the knees of another woman is included in Pardah. It is not permissible to see or touch this portion [of another woman] without a Shar’i need.

4. Applying black hair colour: It is impermissible and Haraam for both, men and women, to dye their hair black.

5. Playing music and songs.

There may be other Shari’ah-prohibited matters as well. Remember! It is not permissible to charge money for these impermissible services either. However, following are some permissible services also provided in a beauty parlour: Removing unwanted facial hair, beautifying the face by applying make-up with different creams, face powders, eye shades, etc., dark skin treatment, applying henna on hands and feet, styling the hair, etc. Moreover, it is permissible to use pure substances for make-up and apply make-up in a permissible manner. According to the Shar’i rules of contract, it is permissible to rent-out a shop for beauty parlour provided that one does not make the intention of providing help in impermissible acts carried out in the beauty parlour; instead, he should only have the intention of making a contract. However, a person should avoid renting out his shop to such people who will carry out both, permissible and impermissible deeds in the shop and specially, the shops belonging to a Masjid should not be rented out for such purposes. Displaying the pictures of living beings on the shop is not permissible. Moreover, displaying pictures of women which become more attractive because of make-up, invite others to commit unlawful gazing. Therefore, displaying pictures of women is a disgusting act of immodesty and not permissible at all. Moreover, the angels of mercy do not come at a place where the pictures of living beings are displayed. Therefore, it is not permissible at all to display pictures, and in view of the sacredness of the Masjid, one must avoid displaying such pictures in the shops belonging to it.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ تَعَالٰی عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Written by:

Abul Hasan Jameel Ahmad Ghauri Al-Attari

Approved by :

Muhammad Fuzayl Raza Al-Attari

Question:

What do Islamic scholars say about the following issue: Where will a woman spend her ‘iddah after the occurrence of three divorces? Is it obligatory for her to spend the ‘iddah in the husband’s house? Or can she stay at her parents’ house?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

In the ‘iddah of divorce or death, it is Wajib for a woman to perform ‘iddah at her husband’s house. She cannot leave her husband’s house and go to her parents’ house or any other place without the permission of Shari’ah. If the husband forcibly evicts her, then that is another matter and she will have to complete the ‘iddah in the house of her parents as per necessity. Remember that following one or two Talaaq-e-Ba`in or Talaaq-e-Mughallazah , the woman will become a stranger to her husband and it will be obligatory according to Shari’ah to observe veil from her husband during the ‘iddah period. If it is not possible to observe veil by residing in the same house, then it is better for the husband to take up residence in another place until the end of the ‘iddah and allow the woman to spend the ‘iddah in that house.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

2. Can a woman travel a distance of 40 kilometres without a Mahram?

Question:

What do Islamic scholars and Muftis of Islam say about the following issue: Can a woman travel a distance of 35 to 40 kilometres without any Mahram or husband for the purpose of some work?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

According to Zahir-ar-Riwayah and the original ruling of the (Hanafi) school, it is unlawful and sinful for a woman to travel 92 kilometres or more without a Mahram or a husband. This is not the ruling for a day’s journey, meaning around 30 kilometres. However, there is also a narration from the Shaykhayn (Imam A’zam Abu Hanifah and Imam Abu Yusuf رَحْمَةُ الـلّٰـهِ عَلَيْهِمَا) that a woman cannot travel even for a day’s journey without a Mahram or a husband, and the jurists, due to the corruption of this era, (on the basis of سداً للذرائع [Sad-Al-Zara’i] ) have also given a fatwa on this narration. Thus, now a woman cannot travel even on a day’s journey without a Mahram or a husband, it is prohibited by the Shari’ah.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question:

What do the honourable scholars state regarding this issue; my brother divorced his wife and said that she should be left at her parental home. He is not allowing her to stay in his home, and for two days, she stayed on the bottom floor at the house of her brother-in-law. After this, the family of the wife took her with them, as the ex-husband was stopping her from performing iddah (waiting period). In this situation, is the financial expenditure of the iddah incumbent upon the ex-husband or not?

Answer :

In the situation described, the female in question will have the expenditure of her iddah covered by her ex-husband, and this is necessary upon him to do so.

Detailing the specifics of this, it is compulsory for a divorced woman to spend the time span of her iddah in the home of her ex-husband. During this time, the financial costs related to her living there are all to be covered by the ex-husband, and this is incumbent upon him. However, if the iddah is spent in another place, then until she returns to her ex-husband’s home, she will be considered disobedient (to Islamic laws), and also will not be entitled to the financial expenditure of the ex-husband.

However, if the ex-husband himself is removing her from the home and not allowing her to perform iddah thereupon, and she is forced to perform it elsewhere, then she will not be considered disobedient. Furthermore, the financial expenditure of the iddah is still compulsory upon the ex-husband, and he is also sinful for forcing her out of the home. As long as a divorced woman remains in iddah, it is necessary (Wajib) for the ex-husband to allow her to remain in the same home she lived in before the divorce.

Keep in mind, after three divorces, a woman becomes Haraam upon a man. In this case, the same rules of veiling will apply between them as are found between unacquainted men and women.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

2. Regarding the state of Wudu during breastfeeding

Question:

What do the honourable scholars say regarding this issue; if an Islamic sister is breastfeeding a child, will this action break her Wudu? If this does not break her Wudu, can she perform Salah etc., after having finished breastfeeding the child?

Answer:

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Question:

Breastfeeding a child does not invalidate the Wudu of a woman. In explanation, the honourable jurists of Islam have listed all such actions which incur the breaking of Wudu in light of Quran and hadith. From amongst these, breastfeeding a child is not included. As such, if a woman breastfeeds a child in the state of Wudu, she is able to perform Salah etc. afterwards, and there is no harm in doing so.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What have respected Islamic scholars and Muftis ruled on the following issue? Is a woman allowed to make Isal-e-Sawab and to perform Dam during menses?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

To convey the reward of any of one’s good deeds is called ‘Isal-e-Sawab’. To be in the state of purity is not a condition for it. Therefore, a woman is allowed to make Isal-e-Sawab even in the state of menses and post-natal bleeding. However, in our society, there is a well-known meaning of Isal-e-Sawab, i.e. Surah Fatihah, etc. is recited and the reward is conveyed to someone. Here is the detail of it. A woman is not allowed to recite the Holy Quran during these days. Apart from it, if she wishes, she may make Zikr and recite Salat upon the Holy Prophet and make Isal-e-Sawab afterwards. It is better for her to make Wudu or at least rinse her mouth before this. The same detail is about Dam. She is not allowed to recite any verse of the Holy Quran for performing Dam. Except for the recitation of the Holy Quran, it is permissible for her to recite Awraad and Wazaif for this purpose. Clarification: A woman experiencing menses or post-natal bleeding is unconditionally forbidden from reciting the Holy Quran. However, there are such verses in the Holy Quran in which the intention of glorifying and praising Almighty Allah or praying to Him is possible. Therefore, if she wishes, she is allowed to recite such verses with the intention of glorification or praise or prayer without intending to recite the Holy Quran. She is allowed to convey the reward of glorifying and praising the Almighty to anyone. Likewise, after she has made this Divine glorification and praise, she is also allowed to make Dam on anyone with the intention of cure, etc. by the blessing of this Divine glorification and praise. However, there are also certain sacred words called ‘Huruf-e-Muqatta’at’ [حروفِ مقطعات]. She is not allowed to recite them even with the intention of glorifying and praising the Almighty. Similarly, there are certain verses in which Allah has praised Himself mentioning the first person pronoun. She is not allowed to recite these verses with the same pronoun even with the above intention. Likewise, there are some Surahs that begin with the word ‘قُلْ’. To recite such Surahs with the word ‘قُلْ’ even with the intention of glorifying and praising Allah and praying is not permissible for her. This intention is not possible when reciting these verses and Surahs

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered by:

Mufti Fuzail Raza Attari

Woman’s making Qira’at aloud during Jahri Salahs

Question : 02

What have Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? A man offering Salah individually has the option to make Qira’at aloud during Jahri Salahs. Does a woman also have the option to make Qira’at aloud while offering Jahri Salahs individually?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answered

A woman is forbidden from making Qira’at aloud even during a Jahri Salah. In the books of Islamic jurisprudence, many differences between the Salah of men and women have been stated. Regarding these differences, one of the rulings is that a woman will not make Qira’at aloud even during a Jahri Salah.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered by:

Abul Hasan Jameel Ahmad Gauri Attari

Verified by:

Mufti Fuzail Raza Attari

Question 01:

What have respected Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? Around two weeks’ time is left in the birth of the baby of a woman but she has started having bleeding and watery discharge. Sometimes bleeding starts, and sometimes it stops. So, if the blood is discharged, will she be exempted from offering Salah, or will she have to offer Salah? In addition, if she has to offer Salah, will it be also necessary for her to perform Ghusl before every Salah? Or will it be sufficient to make Wudu only and offer Salah after washing the impure part of the body?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the above situation, offering Salah will be Fard for the woman since the blood which is discharged by a pregnant woman during pregnancy is considered as Istihazah. Similarly, the blood which is discharged during childbirth before the half of the body of the child has come out, is also regarded as Istihazah. And Salah and Fast are not pardoned in the state of Istihazah. However, if the blood is discharged, it will not be necessary for the lady to perform Ghusl before every Salah. In fact, making Wudu after washing the impure area will be sufficient, because blood of Istihazah is one of the elements which make Wudu invalid. It doesn’t make Ghusl Fard, but such blood will definitely invalidate Wudu. However, if a Shari’ah-accepted ‘Uzr [exemption] is proved, the Istihazah-experiencing woman will get more relaxation, from various other perspectives. It is mentioned in Bahar-e-Shari’at: Neither Salah nor fasting is excused or pardoned in the state of Istihazah. Intercourse with an Istihazah-experiencing woman is not Haraam. (Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 1, pp. 385)

Is it necessary to make up for invalidated Nafl I’tikaf?

Question 02

What have respected Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? On the 27th night of Ramadan, an Islamic sister started observing I’tikaf for 3 days. She did not make any vow of I’tikaf. She just made the intention of I’tikaf and started observing it, but on the 29th day of Ramadan, she experienced her menses. Obviously, her I’tikaf became invalid because of the invalidation of her fast. The question is, how will she make up for this I’tikaf?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the above situation, it will not be obligatory for her to make up for I’tikaf due to its invalidation since the mentioned I’tikaf is not Sunnah Mu’akkadah. Sunnah Mu’akkadah I’tikaf is the I’tikaf which is observed for the last ten days, not less than that. Further, she didn’t make the vow of I’tikaf as well. Therefore, it will be classed as Nafl I’tikaf. And Nafl I’tikaf can be observed at Masjid-e-Bayt. Therefore, it is Nafl I’tikaf and Qada for Nafl I’tikaf doesn’t become compulsory. Regarding woman's I’tikaf, it is mentioned in Radd-ul-Muhtar:

فلو خرجت منہ ولو الی ابیتھا بطل الاعتکاف لو واجبا، وانتھی لو نفلا

Translation :

If a woman leaves her Masjid-e-Bayt, even though she leaves for her house, her I’tikaf will become invalid. And if it is Nafl I’tikaf, it will be considered to have been completed. A leading scholar of Shari’ah Mufti Amjad Ali A’zami رَحْمَةُ الـلّٰـهِ عَـلَيْه has stated in Bahar-e-Shari’at regarding Qada for I’tikaf: If somebody ends Nafl I’tikaf, there will be no Qada for it as it ends then and there. If somebody breaks the Sunnah I’tikaf which is observed in the last ten days of Ramadan, he has to make up for the only day the I’tikaf has become invalid. The Qada for the ten days will not become Wajib. If he breaks such an I’tikaf which is based on the vow of any specific month, he will have to make up for the rest of the days. Moreover, if it is Wajib to observe I’tikaf consecutively, he will have to observe it from the beginning. And if it is not Wajib to observe I’tikaf consecutively, he will have to observe I’tikaf for the remaining days. (Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 1, pp. 1028)

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What have respected Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? To wrap a scarf twice while wearing it has been prohibited in a blessed Hadees. These days, when wearing scarfs, women wrap them multiple times. Is this also prohibited?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

It is stated in a blessed Hadees mentioned in Abu Dawood that the Holy Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم came to the mother of believers Sayyidatuna Umm-e-Salamah رَضِیَ اللّٰەُ عَنْهَا who was wrapping a scarf around her head. He صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said, ‘Wrap it once, not twice.’ Commentators have stated that the Beloved and Blessed Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said it for the reason that Arab women, when wearing a scarf or shawl, would wrap it around the head like a turban so that it would not fall from the head. The scarf wrapped in this way would look like a turban, showing resemblance to men. On the other hand, women in our society do not wrap the scarf or shawl like a turban around the head. Nor does it show any resemblance to a turban. Therefore, this is not included in the prohibition stated in the Hadees. Actually, women in our society wrap the scarf so that it will not fall from the head without any resemblance to men. This is permissible. In fact, it is necessary to do so especially at the time of Salah and on occasions when hairs must be covered. (Abu Dawood, vol. 4, pp. 88, Hadees 4115; Lam’aat-ut-Tanqeeh, vol. 7, pp. 372; Fatawa Razawiyyah, vol. 24, pp. 537)

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Recitation of the verse of prostration in menses

Question 02:

What have respected Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? If a woman experiencing menses recites the “verse of prostration”, will the “prostration of Quranic recitation” be Wajib for her or not? Moreover, if a person hears the verse of prostration from a woman experiencing menses, will the prostration be Wajib for him or not?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

It is impermissible and Haraam to recite the Holy Quran during menses. If such a woman recites any verse of prostration, the prostration of Quranic recitation will not be Wajib for her. However, if anyone who is sane and has reached puberty and is capable of offering Salah hears any verse of prostration from a woman experiencing menses, the “prostration because of Quranic recitation” will be Wajib for him. (Hidayah ma’ Fath-ul-Qadeer, vol. 1, pp. 468; Maraqil Falah ma’ Tahtaawi, vol. 2, pp. 89; Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 1, pp. 729)

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What have the respected Islamic scholars ruled in this regard that the distance of a woman's parents’ house from her place is more than the distance of a Shar’i journey i.e. more than 92 km, but no one is there to take her to her parents’ home or bring her back from her parents’ home to her husband’s house. So, can she travel between her parents’ and husband’s homes with her Baligh brother-in-law when children are also with her? The boy is five years old and the girl is six years old. And public transport is used for travelling? It is done because the husband is busy at work and the father is old. And she doesn’t have any Mahram [unmarriable kin] there. Please guide us in this matter.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In terms of Shari’ah, it is impermissible and Haraam for any old or young lady to travel a distance that constitutes a journey as defined by Shari’ah, i.e. 92 km; unless she is accompanied by her husband or a trust-worthy, sane and Baligh (Murahiq, meaning one nearing adulthood, is also considered a Baligh in this ruling) Mahram, with whom her Nikah is Haraam forever, regardless of the purpose of the journey. And the brother-in-law and brother's wife are also non-Mahrams and strangers for each other. And they are obliged to observe Purdah from each other. In fact, the rulings for the husband’s brother are stricter than those for common people. Hence, the said lady cannot travel between her parents’ and husband’s homes with her brother-in-law, because he is a non-Mahram too. And if she does travel, then sins will be written in her record of deeds for every step she takes. And if, مَعَاذَ اللہ [Allah forbid], she doesn’t observe Purdah from her brother-in-law, that will also be a sin on its own.

What is the ruling for a lady on visiting her parents’ home during her Iddah?

Question 02:

What have the respected Islamic scholars ruled in this regard that a lady is observing ‘Iddah after Talaaq-e-Mughallazah [a kind of divorce]. Her father has passed away and now his Chaleesvan (memorial ceremony for Isal-e-Sawab (conveying reward) held on the 40th day of death) is taking place. Can she go to another city to attend her father’s Chaleesvan. And can she leave the house of her husband to spend Eid? (Questioner: Syed Shahid Attari (Badami Bagh, Lahore))

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the mentioned situation, it is impermissible for a lady to leave her husband’s home to attend her father’s Chaleesvan or spend Eid at her parents’ home during Iddah as it is Wajib upon her to stay in the house her husband had provided her to live in prior to the divorce until the end of Iddah, unless there is a Shari'ah-endorsed justification, whereas attending a Chaleesvan or spending Eid at parents’ home is not a Shari'ah-endorsed justification.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What do the blessed ‘Ulama [Islamic scholars] and Muftis [Islamic jurists] state regarding the following matters: (1) Does Nikah take place [validly] during a woman’s monthly cycle? (2) In our society, bride is also made to recite Kalimahs; can a woman recite Kalimahs during her monthly cycle?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

1. Nikah is defined as: Performance of Aeejaab [proposal] and Qubool [acceptance] by a man and a woman for Nikah in the presence of two witnesses (i.e. either two men or one man and two women). For Nikah, it is not a condition that a woman should be free from the female-related issues. Therefore, Nikah will take place validly during her monthly cycle as well (provided that other conditions are fulfilled). However, remember that it is Haraam [prohibited] to copulate with a woman during her monthly cycle. In fact, it is not permissible in this state to touch the portion of a woman’s body from beneath the navel up to and including the knees directly without anything in between. Moreover, looking at this portion lustfully is also impermissible. However, every type of benefit from the portion of the body above and below the abovementioned portion is unconditionally permissible. Therefore, if Nikah and Rukhsati take place during a woman’s monthly cycle, the abovementioned ruling should be given careful consideration.

2. It is Haraam for a woman to recite the Holy Quran during her monthly cycle. Other than it, reciting Zikr-o-Azkaar, Kalimahs, Salat-‘Alan-Nabi صَلَّى اللهُ تَعَالٰى عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم, etc., is permissible. In fact, she can recite even those Ayahs which contain Zikr, praise and Du’a with the intention of Zikr and Du’a, having no intention of recitation [of the Holy Quran]. Even though some of the Kalimahs contain Quranic words, they are recited only as Zikr without the intention of recitation [of the Holy Quran]. Therefore, a woman can recite Kalimahs during her monthly cycle. However, it is better to recite Kalimahs after performing Wudu or rinsing the mouth.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Written by:

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

What do the blessed ‘Ulama [Islamic scholars] and Muftis [Islamic jurists] state regarding the following matters: (1) Does Nikah take place [validly] during a woman’s monthly cycle? (2) In our society, bride is also made to recite Kalimahs; can a woman recite Kalimahs during her monthly cycle?

A ruling regarding the monthly cycle and Sawm [fast]

Question 02 :

What do the blessed ‘Ulama and Muftis state regarding the following matter: We know the ruling that if a woman’s monthly cycle starts in the state of Sawm [fasting], her Sawm breaks and then she is allowed to eat and drink. However, it is better that she does not eat in front of others but it is not necessary for her to remain hungry and thirsty like the Sawm-observing people. The question is: If a woman becomes pure [i.e. her monthly cycle ends] after Tulu’-e-Fajr [the starting time of Fajr Salah] in a day of Ramadan, is it necessary for her to spend the rest part of that day like the Sawm-observing people or not? Please guide us on this matter.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

For a woman who attains purity after Tulu’-e-Fajr in a day of Ramadan, it is Wajib [compulsory] to spend the rest part of that day like the Sawm-observing people because according to the laws of Shari’ah: It is Wajib to remain like the Sawm-observing people for every such person for whom there is ‘Uzr [any difficulty considered valid by the Shari’ah] in observing the Sawm of Ramadan in the early part of the day but the ‘Uzr comes to an end at any time during the day and then he gets into such state that if he was in it in the early part of the day, observing Sawm would be Fard [obligatory] for him.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Written by:

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

Question 01:

What have the respected Islamic scholars ruled in this regard that the distance of a woman's parents’ house from her place is more than the distance of a Shar’i journey i.e. more than 92 km, but no one is there to take her to her parents’ home or bring her back from her parents’ home to her husband’s house. So, can she travel between her parents’ and husband’s homes with her Baligh brother-in-law when children are also with her? The boy is five years old and the girl is six years old. And public transport is used for travelling? It is done because the husband is busy at work and the father is old. And she doesn’t have any Mahram [unmarriable kin] there. Please guide us in this matter.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In terms of Shari’ah, it is impermissible and Haraam for any old or young lady to travel a distance that constitutes a journey as defined by Shari’ah, i.e. 92 km; unless she is accompanied by her husband or a trust-worthy, sane and Baligh (Murahiq, meaning one nearing adulthood, is also considered a Baligh in this ruling) Mahram, with whom her Nikah is Haraam forever, regardless of the purpose of the journey. And the brother-in-law and brother's wife are also non-Mahrams and strangers for each other. And they are obliged to observe Purdah from each other. In fact, the rulings for the husband’s brother are stricter than those for common people. Hence, the said lady cannot travel between her parents’ and husband’s homes with her brother-in-law, because he is a non-Mahram too. And if she does travel, then sins will be written in her record of deeds for every step she takes. And if, مَعَاذَ اللہ [Allah forbid], she doesn’t observe Purdah from her brother-in-law, that will also be a sin on its own.

What is the ruling for a lady on visiting her parents’ home during her Iddah?

Question 02:

What have the respected Islamic scholars ruled in this regard that a lady is observing ‘Iddah after Talaaq-e-Mughallazah [a kind of divorce]. Her father has passed away and now his Chaleesvan (memorial ceremony for Isal-e-Sawab (conveying reward) held on the 40th day of death) is taking place. Can she go to another city to attend her father’s Chaleesvan. And can she leave the house of her husband to spend Eid? (Questioner: Syed Shahid Attari (Badami Bagh, Lahore))

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the mentioned situation, it is impermissible for a lady to leave her husband’s home to attend her father’s Chaleesvan or spend Eid at her parents’ home during Iddah as it is Wajib upon her to stay in the house her husband had provided her to live in prior to the divorce until the end of Iddah, unless there is a Shari'ah-endorsed justification, whereas attending a Chaleesvan or spending Eid at parents’ home is not a Shari'ah-endorsed justification.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What do the blessed ‘Ulama [Islamic scholars] and Muftis [Islamic jurists] state regarding the following matter: While applying make-up to a bride’s face, we apply a little colour, kajal, Surmah [a type of kohl], pencil, shades, etc. to the eyebrows, and this colour is applied according to the colour of the eyebrows. For example, if the eyebrows are black, kajal or Surmah is applied, and if they are brown, we use a shade of similar colour so that their features can also be made dominant and beautiful like other parts of the face (such as cheeks, nose, jaws and lips). Similarly, the colour of the extra black hairs of the eyebrows is changed to the bride’s complexion by applying bleach, colour and dye. Is it permissible to beautify the eyebrows in this way as well? (Questioner: Umm-e-Haydar)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

It is permissible for you to beautify the eyebrows in the aforementioned way as well provided that you do not make the eyebrows thinner by plucking them, do not apply creams or powders containing Najas [impure] substances, and do not use black dye or colour, or the one similar to the black for white hairs. However, if you carry out any of the aforementioned acts or beautify by using a method contrary to Shari’ah, beautifying will not be then permissible. Having the eyebrows plucked and making them thinner or having it done is impermissible and a sin.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ تَعَالٰی عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Islamic ruling on attaching artificial hair for a hairstyle

Question : 02

What do the blessed ‘Ulama and Muftis state regarding the following matter: Is it permissible to temporarily attach a wig or a hair bun made of an animal hair such as the hairs of a horse or monkey, or artificial hairs of plastic to the hair of women through needles, hairpins, etc., in order to beautify their hairstyle? (Questioner: Umm-e-Haydar)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the aforementioned case, it is permissible to attach a wig or a hair bun made of the hairs of any animal except swine, such as a horse, monkey, etc., or made of artificial hairs of plastic. However, it is impermissible and Haraam [prohibited] to attach a wig or a hair bun made of the hairs of a human. Remember! If this temporary wig serves as an obstacle to the Mash ‘مَسْح’ [moistening] of the head in Wudu or washing of the actual hairs of the head in Ghusl, it will be compulsory to make Wudu and do Ghusl after removing it.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ تَعَالٰی عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Question :

What do the Islamic scholars say regarding the following matter: In front of which people must a woman observe hijab after her husband dies, and in whose presence does she not have to observe it? During this period, must she observe hijab in the presence of her siblings’ sons and her son-in-law? Some people believe that following the death of her husband, a woman in the waiting period must wear a veil when under the open sky. Is this true?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Unfortunately, many people believe that women have different rules of hijab during the waiting period—this is incorrect. Islam ordains one set of rules of hijab for women, which they must observe, irrespective of whether or not they are in their waiting period. The rulings of hijab do not change with the onset of the waiting period. Women do not have to observe hijab during their waiting period before men in whose presence hijab was not necessary prior to their waiting period, and they must observe it during the waiting period before men in whose presence hijab was required prior to the waiting period.

As for the people in whose presence hijab is and is not required, Islam provides the following guidelines:

1. Irrespective of whether or not a woman is in her waiting period, it is necessary (Wajib) for her to observe the veil in the presence of non-Mahram men, such as her brother-in-law and maternal and paternal cousins.

2. She must not observe the veil before her blood Mahrams (Mahram Nasabi) such as her father, brother, son, father’s brother, mother’s brother, etc. She will be sinful if she observes the veil before them.

3. It is not necessary for her to observe the veil in the presence of a marital Mahram (Mahram Sihri), i.e., someone who is her Mahram through marriage, such as her father-in-law. Likewise, the same ruling is applicable in the presence of a man who is a woman’s nursed Mahram, i.e., someone who is her Mahram through milk kinship, such as the son and husband of her wet-nurse. It is optional for her to observe the veil in the presence of such men. However, she is encouraged to observe it in front of them while she is young.

In light of the details given above, the answer to the given question is clear: as a woman’s nephews are classed as her blood Mahrams, she must not observe the veil before them during the waiting period; she will be sinful if she does. The son-in-law is a Mahram through marriage. Therefore, it is optional to veil before him. However, if the mother-in-law is young, it is more apt for her to observe the veil. And if there is a high probability of any wrongdoing taking place, then it is necessary (Wajib) to observe the veil; this ruling is general and not exclusive to the waiting period. Moreover, in Islam, there is no concept of observing the veil under the open sky. Hence, a woman is allowed to enter a private space, such as her garden, during her waiting period. In doing so, care should be taken to ensure that the rules of hijab are observed before those in whose presence it is necessary.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question : 01

What do blessed Islamic scholars and Muftis say about the following issue? If a woman is reciting a Wazifah of Surah Al-Fatihah or Ayat-ul-Kursi for forty days for achieving a permissible purpose and during this period her monthly cycle begins, so now can she continue her Wazifah during these days?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

In the above-mentioned condition, the woman cannot recite Surah Al-Fatihah and Ayat-ul-Kursi during her monthly cycle for reciting the Wazifah to achieve her purpose because it is impermissible for the woman, having a monthly cycle, to recite the Holy Quran. However, it is allowed in two conditions:

1. Reciting (them) in a specific manner for giving education

2. Reciting blessed Quranic Ayahs consisting of Glory of Allah and Du’a only with the intention of Zikr and Du’a

What do you say about woman wearing jewellery during the Iddat period?

Question : 02

What do blessed Islamic scholars and Muftis say about the following issue? Should a woman wear a nose-pin and earrings during the Iddat period of three divorces?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

It is forbidden for a woman to wear every type of jewellery during the Iddat period of three divorces as for a woman, it is Wajib to mourn during this Iddat period. Mourning means that the woman should stop wearing jewellery, nose-pin, earrings, ring, plain rings, bangles, applying kohl, using fragrance, applying oil (even if it is without fragrance), using comb, in short, she should stop using every type of adornment. However, due to a Shar’i reason, she is allowed to perform some of the acts such as she can apply oil to her hair and comb it if she gets headache because of not doing them.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question : 01

What do the Islamic scholars say regarding the following: a sister did not observe the veil as she would reveal her hair, neck, and wrists in front of non-mahram males apart from her husband. She made a vow that if a specific matter of hers gets resolved, she will observe the Islamic veil for the sake of Allah Almighty. Her matter was resolved. Is this vow a legally binding vow according to the laws of Islam?

A: It is necessary for a woman to cover her hair, wrists, ankles, neck, etc., in front of non-mahram males. Uncovering these parts in front of them is impermissible and a sin. For an Islamic vow to be initiated, it is a condition for the thing one is taking a vow about to not already be necessary according to the Shari’ah. As it is already necessary for a woman to cover herself, in the question asked, the vow made by the sister is not an Islamic vow. The requirement to cover herself will remain as per usual.

In relation to the veil, Allah Almighty states:

وَ قَرۡنَ فِیۡ بُیُوۡتِکُنَّ وَ لَا تَبَرَّجۡنَ تَبَرُّجَ الۡجَاہِلِیَّۃِ الۡاُوۡلٰی

‘And stay in your homes and do not remain unveiled like the former unveiling in the times of ignorance,’

Kanz-ul-Iman (translation of Quran) (Part 22, Surah Al-Ahzaab, Verse 33)

Elaborating on this verse, Sayyid Muhammad Na’eem al-Deen al-Muradabadi رَحْمَةُ الـلّٰـهِ عَلَيْه said: Times of ignorance refers to the era before Islam. In those times, women would strut when out in public; they would display their beauty so that non-mahram men would look at them, and their clothing would not cover their body properly, (Khaza’in-ul-‘Irfan, p. 780).

Moreover, Mufti Amjad Ali al-A’zami رَحْمَةُ الـلّٰـهِ عَلَيْه adds: Apart from the face, both palms, and the soles of both feet, the whole body is an area that must be covered (‘awra) for free women and hermaphrodites whose gender cannot be ascertained. Hair that hangs down from the head, the neck, and the wrists are also part of this area; it is necessary to cover them too, (Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 1, p. 481).

As for the conditions of a vow, Islamic legal texts state:

والثالث ان یکون لیس واجبا قبل نذرہ بایجاب الله تعالیٰ، کالصلوات الخمس والوتر

‘The third condition is for the thing not to have been made necessary by Allah عَزَّوَجَلَّ before the vow, such as the five prayers and Witr,’ (Maraqi Al-Falah matan Al-Tahtaawi, p. 692).

And in addition: A vow that is actualised and has to be fulfilled according to the Shari’ah has these parameters:

1. The vow must be of something which has something in its type (jins) that is necessary (wajib). A vow cannot consist of visiting the sick, going to the masjid, or partaking in a funeral.

2. The worship [regarding which a vow is made] itself should be an actual objective and not the means to fulfil another act of worship. Hence, a vow to perform wudu, ghusl, or look at the Quran is not valid.

3. The vow should not be related to something which the Shari’ah itself has made necessary, whether that be presently or in the future. For example, to make a vow to perform the Dhuhr salah of today or any other obligatory prayer would not be valid, as these things are already necessary.

4. The vow should not be related to doing something sinful in itself. If it is a sin due to some external factor, then the vow will be valid. For example, it is prohibited to fast on the days of Eid. If someone vows to fast on these days, the vow will be valid, although the ruling would be that the individual should fast on some other day, and not on Eid. This prohibition is temporary, meaning it is due to the day of Eid. To fast is permissible in and of itself.

5. The vow should not be regarding something that is impossible. For example, making a vow to fast on the previous day; such a vow is not valid, (Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 1, p. 1015)..

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Written By

Abu Muhammad Faraz Attari Madani

Verfied By :

Mufti Abu Muhammad Ali Asghar Attari Madani

What if a woman’s monthly cycle begins after the time of Salah has started?

Question 03:

What do the blessed Ulama and Muftis state regarding the following matter: If a woman’s monthly cycle begins after the time of Salah has started, is it compulsory for her to offer the missed Salah of that time after attaining purity? Questioner: Bint-e-Junayd Attari (Rawalpindi)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

If the time of Salah has started and a woman has not yet offered Salah but her monthly cycle or postnatal bleeding begins, it is not compulsory for her to offer that missed Salah after attaining purity because the Haqeeqi [actual] reason for ‘Salah being Fard’ is the Divine commandment, and the apparent reason is ‘time’. Fard is regarded as performed if Salah is offered in any part of this time [period]. It is not compulsory to offer Salah in the beginning part of the time period. As people have this choice, if a person delays offering Salah in the beginning of the time period and such an Uzr [situation] affects him or her due to which a person becomes exempt from offering Salah, then offering Salah of that time is not obligatory [for such a person], and offering this missed Salah is also not compulsory.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Abu Saaleh Muhammad Qaasim Al-Qaadiri

Question : 01

What have Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? The wife of Zaid has passed away. His mother-in-law is around sixty two years of age. Some people are of the opinion that veil will now be observed between Zaid and his mother-in-law because his wife has passed away. Please guide us on whether or not veil is to be observed between Zaid and his mother-in-law because of his wife’s death.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered By :

Muhammad Hashim Khan Attari Madani

Reciting Ayat-ul-Kursi during menses

Question 2:

What have Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? Are Islamic sisters allowed to recite Ayat-ul-Kursi during menses?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

During menses, Islamic sisters are allowed to recite Ayat-ul-Kursi with the intention of making Zikr and Sana [i.e. remembering and glorifying the Almighty] without intending to recite the Holy Quran. Those who are required to make Ghusl as well as those experiencing menses are allowed to recite such verses of the Holy Quran which consist of Zikr, Sana, Du’a and Munajat a without intending to recite the Holy Quran with the intention of making Zikr, Sana and Du’a. However, if she is among those who know that she is experiencing menses, it is not appropriate to recite the verses aloud even with the intention of Zikr and Sana. This care should be taken in case they consider recitation of the Quran to be permissible in the state of menses or even though they do consider recitation of the Quran impermissible in this state but they might falsely accuse the reciting one of sin.

Answered by:

Muhammad Hashim Khan Attari Madani

‘Iddat period for pregnant woman

Question 03:

What have Islamic scholars ruled on the following issue? If a woman is divorced while pregnant, what will be her ‘Iddat period?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answered:

The ‘Iddat period for the woman divorced in the state of pregnancy is the birth of the baby. When the baby is born, her ‘Iddat period will end.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered By:

Muhammad Irfan Madani

Verified By:

Muhammad Hashim Khan Attari Madani

Question : 01

What have respected Islamic scholars and Muftis ruled on the following issue? A lady is going to perform ‘Umrah along with her nephew. The lady also has a young daughter and wants to take her to ‘Umrah along with her. Is it allowed for the girl to travel in the above situation? Will there be any leniency because of the mother accompanying the daughter during the journey?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer

In the situation mentioned in the question, the lady is allowed to travel along with her nephew but her daughter is not allowed to travel. Being along with the mother will make no difference. It is necessary for the girl to travel along with her own Mahram. A maternal male cousin is non-Mahram and Islamic veil must be observed with him. Therefore, if the lady wants to travel, she can do so but she cannot take her daughter with her. According to the blessed Shari’ah, it is Haraam for a woman to travel a Shari’ah-declared distance, i.e. 92 kilometres or over it without her husband or Mahram. Whether it is a journey of Hajj and ‘Umrah or for any other purpose, the same ruling applies.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered by:

Abu Huzayfah Muhammad Shafeeq Attari Madani

Verified by:

Mufti Muhammad Qasim Attari

Na’at recitation on television in Burqa’ or Hijab

Question : 03

What have respected Islamic scholars and Muftis ruled on the following issue? Is a woman who is wearing a Burqa’ or Hijab allowed to recite Na’at on television? (Questioner: Muhammad Lateef, Allama Iqbal Colony, Rawalpindi)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

For a woman to recite Na’at is permissible and a means of earning reward. But it is necessary to ensure that her voice must not reach non-Mahrams. If the voice of a woman is so loud that it reaches non-Mahrams, it will be impermissible and a sin to recite it in such a loud voice. Whether she recites it in home or in the neighbourhood or in the street or in an open room or on the television, the same ruling will apply. For a woman to recite anything in a melodious voice that a non-Mahram listens to is a cause of mischief and is impermissible for the same reason. Therefore, it is unconditionally impermissible for a woman to recite a Na’at on the television no matter she does so while observing complete Islamic veil. Non-Mahrams also watch and listen to the television and the melodious voice of the woman also reaches them. Therefore, it is not permissible for a woman to recite Na’at in this case.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Answerd By :

Muhammad Naveed Chishti

Verofied By :

Mufti Muhammad Qasim Attari

Question : 01

What do the honourable scholars say about the following: some people marry off their sisters after the death of their father. They cover the costs of the wedding and dowry using the inheritance from their father which had multiple shares. When it comes to discussing matters of inheritance, they do not give their sisters their share and say: “In exchange for their share of inheritance, we married them off and provided their dowry. Therefore, they will not receive a share from the inheritance.” However, when the marriage and dowry were paid for, it was not mentioned that these things are being paid for in exchange for the bride’s share of inheritance.

My questions are as follows:

1. According to the shari’ah, is such a claim made by the brothers valid?

2. In the given scenario, if it is necessary to give the sisters their share, what is the punishment for those who do not give a woman their rightful share of inheritance?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

1. It is categorically wrong for the brothers to claim: “In exchange for their share of inheritance, we married them off and provided their dowry. Therefore, they will not receive a share from the inheritance.” If the one whose inheritance is being distributed had daughters, it is necessary for them to be given their share. Whatever the brothers spent on their sister’s dowry and wedding will not be deducted from her share of inheritance, nor will this cancel out her shares in their entirety. This is because the dowry and any other expenses the brothers covered without making an agreement will be regarded as a favour and gift on their behalf.

The details of this are as follows: although the brothers paid for the dowry and wedding using the wealth from the inheritance (consisting of multiple shares), it was not mentioned at the time of paying that these costs are being covered in exchange for their sister’s share of the inheritance or that the sister will no longer have a share in a particular part [of the inheritance]. Moreover, neither is it the case that the sister’s share was taken from the inheritance and spent on the wedding and dowry. This is not a case of reconciliation (sulh) and mutual withdrawal (takhaaruj), as the sister’s share is not cancelled out (saaqit) from the entire inheritance or from a particular category. The sisters did not think that they no longer can claim their share. Therefore, the costs of the marriage and dowry will not be deducted from the shares of the sisters. These payments will be considered as a voluntary contribution and goodwill on behalf of the brothers.

2. The matter of not giving a woman her share of inheritance was common before Islam during the age of ignorance. However, Islam honoured women, and just like men, women were also granted a rightful claim to inheritance. Anyone who now makes excuses to stop a woman from receiving her share of inheritance is an oppressor and usurper. If someone forcefully deprives a female inheritor of her rightful share of inheritance and usurps her share, he will be given a severe punishment. On the Day of Judgement, a collar will be made using the earth’s seven layers and placed around his neck. He will sink into the seven layers of the earth and bear the punishment of digging up the earth’s seven layers and carrying their load until the Day of Judgement. None of his actions will be accepted

وَاللّٰہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللّٰہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

Question : 01

What do blessed ‘Ulama [Islamic scholars] state regarding the following matter: After Tawaf, offering two Rak’aat Nafl Salah near Maqaam-e-Ibraheem is Mustahab. Is the ruling same for women or should they offer these two Rak’aat Nafl at some other place?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

If there is a risk of getting mixed with men and coming into contact with them due to a huge crowd at Maqaam-e-Ibraheem, for a woman, the ruling on the Nafl of Tawaf states that she should not offer this Nafl Salah at Maqaam-e-Ibraheem. Instead, she should offer it at such place where there is no risk of coming into contact with men. However, if there is no risk of coming into contact with men at Maqaam-e-Ibraheem, it is Mustahab even for a woman to offer this Nafl Salah at Maqaam-e-Ibraheem. Same is the ruling on doing the Istilaam of Hajar-e-Aswad and climbing Mount Safa. (Durr-e-Mukhtar ma’ Rad-dul-Muhtar, vol. 3, pp. 630; Bahr-ul-‘Ameeq, vol. 2, pp. 1248)

وَاللّٰہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللّٰہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

Can the husband lower his wife into the grave?

Question 2:

What do blessed ‘Ulama state regarding the following matter: Some people say that it is not permissible for the husband to lower his wife into the grave. Is it really correct? Please guide us.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

It is permissible for the husband to lower his wife into the grave after her death. Similarly, shouldering her Janazah and looking at her are also permissible. However, it is impermissible [for the husband] to touch the body of [his] wife directly without anything in between. It is stated in Fatawa Razawiyyah: It is permissible for the husband to look at the face or the body of his wife after her death, either inside or outside the grave, to lower her into the grave, and [to shoulder] the Janazah [also as it] is shouldered even by non-Mahrams. However, it is impermissible for the husband to touch her body directly without anything in between. (Fatawa Razawiyyah, vol. 9, pp. 138)

وَاللّٰہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللّٰہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

Question : 01

What do the scholars of the Deen and muftis of the Sacred Law state regarding the following issue about a custom which is becoming popular in our family. When a woman becomes pregnant for the first time after marriage, she is not allowed to beautify herself for her husband for up to 7 months. Likewise, she is not permitted to travel to another city for any work or for an occasion of happiness or sadness. Opposing this is considered to be a cause of misfortune and they say that if she adorns herself or travels to another city, then she will fall victim to some harm. I want to know if this theory is correct or not.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Preventing a woman, who is pregnant for the first time after marriage, from adorning herself and travelling to another city, and that under the erroneous assumption that if she goes she will face harm, is incorrect because that is a superstition and in Islam, superstitions are not permissible. A woman may leave the house for necessary purposes as long as she takes care in fulfilling the Shari’ requirements of veiling. In some cases, it is necessary for her to leave the house like in the case of the journey of Hajj, when all its conditions are established. Similarly, a woman adopting beauty and adornment for her husband is not only permissible, but a cause of great reward. Matters like these cannot be stopped because of ignorant rituals and unsubstantiated views. Therefore, in the scenario of the questioner, the woman who is pregnant for the first time after marriage, cannot be prevented from adopting permitted adornment and travelling whilst veiling and fulfilling the necessary conditions, on the false basis borne from their thoughts. Eradicating any false theories that your family may hold is necessary.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

How is it to, during the days of menstruation, consume menstruation preventing medicine and perform Umrah?

Question:

What do the scholars of the Deen and muftis of the Sacred Law state regarding the following issue that an Islamic sister has the habit of menstruating for 8 days. According to the norm, she menstruated for 4 days. Then she consumed medicine that prevented her from bleeding which meant there was no menstruating on the 5th day. So after doing Ghusl, she performed Umrah, then on the sixth day, the bleeding occurred until the normal days. What is the ruling on the Umrah she performed?

Answer :

For menstruation, it is not necessary for blood to flow at all times. It is not the case that menstruation does not occur without it either, rather the bleeding at the beginning and the end are considered. Circumambulation of the Ka’bah as part of Umrah during this state necessitates expiation (dumm). But if circumambulation is later repeated in a state of purity, then there will be no expiation. Therefore, in the scenario of the questioner, in the 8 days mentioned by the Islamic sister, 1 day was such that she did not bleed. However, that will still be considered as a day of menstruation because during menstruation, between periods of bleeding, the days of purity are also included in the state of menstruation. Therefore, whoever performs the Tawaf of Umrah in this state, expiation will be incumbent in this state. On the other hand, if the Tawaf is repeated, then the expiation is no longer incumbent. Remember, it is superior to repeat Sa'i as well as the Tawaf. If instead of removing any shortcomings by repeating Tawaf, expiation (dumm) is given, then a male/female goat or sheep can be sacrificed as long as the animal is in line with the conditions of Qurbani and the sacrifice is done within the boundaries of the Haram. Expiation (dumm) will not be valid if it is done anywhere else.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

How is it For a Bride to Put on False Eyelashes?

Question 01:

What do Islamic scholars and respected Muftis say about the following issue? If brides put on false eyelashes, then what is the ruling on it? (Questioner: Umm-e-Haydar ‘Attariyyah)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answers :

It is permissible for women to put on false eyelashes for the purpose of beauty on condition that the eyelashes must not be made from the hairs of a human or swine. However, it is necessary to remove these eyelashes at the time of Wudu and Ghusl because false eyelashes are usually stuck to the natural ones using glue or some other adhesive, etc. During Wudu and Ghusl, it is necessary to wash every hair of natural eyelashes but washing them is not possible unless the false ones are removed. Anyway, it is permissible to benefit from plastic-made hairs and from the hairs of any other animal except for the swine.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answers :

In the situation mentioned above, it is strictly impermissible and a severe sin to teach non-Mahram adult girls in the above-mentioned method for the reason that this method results in the male seeing the body parts of the Satr area of the non-Mahram adult woman as well as leads the adult woman to uncover her body parts of the Satr area in front of the non-Mahram adult male without a Shari’ah-approved reason. For a male to see the body parts of the Satr area of non-Mahram adult woman and for an adult woman to uncover her body parts of the Satr area in front of a non-Mahram adult male are both strictly impermissible and severe sins.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ تَعَالٰی عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

How is it to reply to Azan and to look at the Holy Quran during menses?

Question 3

What do Islamic scholars and respected Muftis say about the following issue? Are ladies allowed to reply to Azan in the state of menses or not? And, are they allowed to look towards the Holy Quran if it is open? (Muhammad Naseer from Wah Cantt)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answers :

It is permissible for ladies to reply to Azan and to look at the Holy Quran during the days of menses. However, it is not permissible to recite and to touch the Holy Quran.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What do respected Islamic scholars say about the following issue? There was a woman who was keeping the Siyam [i.e. fasts] of expiation for invalidating a Sawm. Before she could keep all sixty Siyam, her menses started. After the menses ended, she did not keep the Sawm the next day because of attending a ceremony. Having returned from the ceremony, she kept the Sawm the next day. The question is, will her expiation be valid or not in this case?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer

In the situation mentioned in the question, the expiation is not valid. If a missed Sawm is to be expiated by keeping Siyam, then it is a condition that the Siyam of expiation must be kept consecutively. However, a woman when experiencing menses is forbidden by Shar’iah from keeping Siyam. In this case, after her menses have ended, she must resume keeping Siyam right from the next day. In this way, she will keep the remaining Siyam and her expiation will be valid. If she misses the Sawm even a single day after the menses end, as is mentioned in the question, then her expiation will not be valid even though she keeps all the remaining Siyam. It is now obligatory for her to keep all Siyam again. (Rad-dul-Muhtar, vol. 5, pp. 142)

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Wearing white clothes and combing hairs during Iddat

Question 2:

What do respected Islamic scholars say about the following issues?

1. It’s a custom in our family that a woman, going through ‘Iddat for the demise of her husband, wears only white clothes. Is a woman really commanded to wear only white clothes?

2. Is it permissible to comb hairs during ‘Iddat?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answers :

1. Wearing only white clothes is not necessary for the woman going through ‘Iddat. She is allowed to wear clothes in other colours as well. However, it is Wajib to refrain from wearing clothes in colours that are worn for beauty such as red, etc. Furthermore, she is also not allowed to wear new clothes in any colour. (Fatawa ‘Aalamgiri, vol. 1, pp. 533)

2. It is not permissible to comb hairs during the ‘Iddat period. However, if there is some valid excuse such as headache, then it is allowed to comb hairs without the intention of beauty. But she can use only the thick teeth side of the comb, not the thin teeth one. (Rad-dul-Muhtar, vol. 5, pp. 222; Fatawa Razawiyyah, vol. 13, pp. 331; Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 2, pp. 242)

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Ruling on Salah during which menses start

Question 03 :

What do respected Islamic scholars say about the following issue? If an Islamic sister starts experiencing menses during Salah, then will she have to offer this Salah again later on?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the situation mentioned in the question, if bleeding starts during the Salah, then she is exempted from that Salah. In other words, she is not required to offer it as Qada after she has gained purity. However, if she experiences this condition during a Nafl Salah, then she must offer it as Qada after she has gained purity. (Bahr-ur-Raa`iq, vol. 1, pp. 356; Fatawa Razawiyyah, vol. 4, pp. 349; Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 1, pp. 380)

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question: 01

What do Islamic scholars state about this issue? How much money should a sane, pubescent and healthy Muslim woman have for the Hajj to become Fard for her?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

If a sane, pubescent and healthy Muslim woman has such an amount of money besides her needs through which she can afford her Hajj expenditure and other traveling expenses and can also afford the expenses of any trustworthy Mahram, Hajj will become Fard for her and she will have to pay the expenses of that Mahram as well.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

What do Islamic scholars state about woman’s act of leaving home without a valid reason during the period of ‘Iddah?

Question : 02

What do Islamic scholars and Muftis say about this issue? Hinda’s husband has passed away. Hinda, during the period of Iddah, leaves home for shopping for clothes etc., although she has no need of buying clothes. She also adorns herself. Are these acts of Hinda permissible or not? Hinda is in ‘Iddah and she has enough things to spend the period of ‘Iddah.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

In the above-mentioned situation, Hinda’s act of leaving home during the period of ‘Iddah is impermissible and a sin. Shari’ah has given permission to go outside home in some cases, but Hinda’s act of going out is without any Shar’i permission. Similarly, her act of adorning herself during the period of Iddah is not permissible either because mourning, as per Shari’ah, has to be observed during the period of Iddah and adornment is against mourning.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

What do Islamic scholars state about women’s act of having blessed hair of the Beloved Prophet ﷺ in their possession?

Quesyion : 03

What do Islamic scholars state about the following issue? Can women have holy relics in their possession especially blessed hair of the Beloved Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم? (Questioner: Muhammad Bilal Attari (Mohni road, Lahore)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

As men are allowed to have Holy relics, similarly, women are also allowed to have Holy relics in their possession. It is also permissible as per Shari’ah to have the blessed hair of the Beloved Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم as keeping other holy relics is allowed. It has been proved from many blessed female companions رَضِیَ اللّٰهُ عَنْهُن that they had the blessed hair of the Beloved Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم and other holy relics as well in their possession. Sayyidatuna Aaishah Siddiqah رَضِیَ اللّٰهُ عَنْهَا had the blessed blanket and the blessed Tahband of the Beloved Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم. Sayyidatuna Asma Bint-e-Abu Bakar Siddique رَضِىَ اللهُ عَـنْهُما had the blessed Jubbah and Sayyidatuna Umm-e-Sulaim رَضِیَ اللّٰهُ عَنْهَا had the blessed hair and perspiration of the Beloved Rasool صَلَّى اللّٰهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم. In addition to them, many female pious predecessors had the blessed hair of the Beloved Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم in their possession.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

As mentioned above, Hajj is Fard for the woman and her Mahrams, i.e. her father and brother are also willing to accompany her on the Hajj-pilgrimage. Therefore, in this case, it is compulsory for her to go to perform Hajj along with her Mahram even if forbidden and not allowed by her husband. In fact, after Hajj has become Fard, it is compulsory and necessary to perform it without delay. Delaying it in this case is impermissible and a sin. Moreover, if she goes to perform Hajj without permission from her husband in the above-mentioned situation, she will not become a sinner because the husband is to be obeyed in permissible actions. If he commands his wife to commit any impermissible action, it is not permissible to obey him in this case. Therefore, if Hajj is Fard for a woman and the Mahram is also prepared to go with her, only her husband does not permit her, she can go even without his permission. As for the husband, he should not cause any hurdle in the fulfilment of this Divinely-declared obligation. Instead, he should protect himself as well as his wife from the sin by permitting her willingly and gladly for the pleasure of Almighty Allah

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In terms of Shari’ah, it is impermissible and Haraam for any old or young lady to travel a distance that constitutes a journey as defined by Shari’ah, i.e. 92 km; unless she is accompanied by her husband or a trust-worthy, sane and Baligh (Murahiq, meaning one nearing adulthood, is also considered a Baligh in this ruling) Mahram, with whom her Nikah is Haraam forever, regardless of the purpose of the journey. And the brother-in-law and brother's wife are also non-Mahrams and strangers for each other. And they are obliged to observe Purdah from each other. In fact, the rulings for the husband’s brother are stricter than those for common people. Hence, the said lady cannot travel between her parents’ and husband’s homes with her brother-in-law, because he is a non-Mahram too. And if she does travel, then sins will be written in her record of deeds for every step she takes. And if, مَعَاذَ اللہ [Allah forbid], she doesn’t observe Purdah from her brother-in-law, that will also be a sin on its own.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Ruling on delay in Taqseer

Question : 02

What do respected Islamic scholars say about the following issue? A woman performed ‘Umrah. She came to her hotel without performing Taqseer and the entire day passed in the same condition. The next day, she performed Taqseer in the evening. During this period, she did not do anything which is forbidden in the state of Ihram. The question is, will any Dam [دَم], etc. become compulsory due to delay for almost two days in Taqseer?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In the situation mentioned in the question, nothing will be compulsory because of delaying Taqseer for two days. There is no specific time for Taqseer for the one who has performed sa’ee in Umrah. When the Mu’tamir performs Taqseer, he will come out of the state of Ihram.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Are women allowed to offer Salah before Azan?

Question : 03

What do respected Islamic scholars and Muftis say about the following issue? The time of a Salah has started but Azan has not yet been called. Are ladies allowed to offer Salah before Azan? That is, are the Islamic sisters and Madani girls who are present in the Madrasah allowed to offer Salah before the Azan of Zuhr?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

Even if the time of the Salah has started, it is Khilaf-e-Awla for women to offer Salah before Azan. If there is no valid excuse, then it is preferable to wait for the Jama’at of men except for Fajr Salah. Therefore, women should offer Salah after the Jama’at of men has taken place.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What do Islamic scholars say about the following issue? If a woman or her family members seek Khula’ without any Shar’i reason, then what is the ruling on it?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

For a woman or her family members to seek Khula’ without any Shar’i reason is impermissible, Haraam and a sin. Regarding the woman seeking Khula’ without any reason, the Greatest and Noblest Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said that she would not smell the fragrance of Heaven. Similarly, in another blessed Hadees, such a woman has been declared to be a hypocrite. Moreover, regarding the person who provokes a wife into going against her husband, the Beloved Nabi صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said, ‘He is not from among us.’ Sayyiduna Sawban رَضِىَ اللّٰەُ عَنْهُ narrated that Revered and Renowned Rasool صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said, ‘ایما امرءۃ سئلت زوجھا طلاقا فی غیر ما باس فحرام علیھا رائحة’, i.e. ‘the fragrance of Heaven is Haraam for the woman who seeks a divorce from her husband without any valid excuse.’ In another narration, it is stated ‘ایما امراۃ اختلعت من زوجھا من غیر باس لم ترح رائحۃ الجنة’ i.e. ‘the woman (asking) her husband for Khula’ without any valid excuse will not smell the fragrance of Heaven.’ Sayyiduna Sawban رَضِىَ اللّٰەُ عَنْهُ narrated that the Revered and Renowned Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said, ‘المختلعات هن المنافقات’, i.e. ‘The women seeking Khula’ (without any valid excuse) are hypocrites.’ (Sunan-ut-Tirmizi, vol. 2, pp. 402, Hadees 1190, 1191, 1192) Sayyiduna Abu Hurayrah رَضِىَ اللّٰەُ عَنْهُ narrated that the Beloved and Blessed Prophet صَلَّى اللّٰەُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم said, ‘ليس منا من خبب امرأة على زوجها’ i.e. ‘the one who makes a woman poison her relations with her husband is not from among our fold.’ (Abu Dawood, vol. 2, pp. 369, Hadees 2175) Fatawa Razawiyyah states, ‘If a woman asks for a divorce, she will be a hypocrite. Those who provoke a woman into poisoning her relations with her husband are dear to the devil.’ (Fatawa Razawiyyah, vol. 22, pp. 217) In reply to a question, the leading and legendary scholar of Shari’ah and Tareeqah Mufti Amjad Ali A’zami رَحْمَةُ اللّٰەِ عَلَيْه stated, ‘If the husband perfectly fulfils all the rights of his wife, then it is Haraam for the wife to seek a divorce without any Shari’ah-approved need. Therefore, those who force a woman into obtaining a divorce are sinners.’ (Fatawa Amjadiyyah, vol. 2, pp. 164)

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Zakah from the wealth of wife

Question 2:

What do Islamic scholars say about the following issue? If a wife possesses wealth to such an extent that payment of Zakah from the wealth becomes obligatory, then who will pay the Zakah, the husband or the wife?

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer

If the wife possesses “Nisab ”, then it is Fard for her to pay Zakah. It is not compulsory for the husband to pay her Zakah. However, if the husband pays Zakah on her behalf with her consent, the paid Zakah will be valid in this case.

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّی اللّٰہُ عَلَیْہِ واٰلِہٖ وَسَلَّم

Question:

What do the honourable scholars of Islam say regarding the following matter: After death, can a wife perform the Ghusl of her husband, or husband perform the Ghusl of his wife? Please answer in detail. Questioner: Basharat Ali (Ichhra, Lahore)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer

Upon the demise of the wife, the Nikah ends instantly, whereas upon the demise of the husband, the Nikah does not end instantly, rather, the Nikah will remain intact to a certain extent for the duration that the woman observes her ‘Iddah. Therefore, after the demise of her husband, a woman can perform his Ghusl, as the ruling of Nikah still remains. Likewise, if a husband gave a revocable divorce (Talaaq-e-Raj’i) during his lifetime and the ‘Iddah period was yet remaining and the husband passed away, then she can perform his Ghusl; because after a revocable divorce, the contract of Nikah does not end until the ‘Iddah period has elapsed. However, if the husband gave her an irrevocable divorce (Talaaq-e-Baa`in) before his passing, she cannot perform his Ghusl even if she is observing her ‘Iddah, as the irrevocable divorce terminates the Nikah.

As the Nikah comes to an end upon the demise of the wife, a husband cannot perform the Ghusl of his wife after her demise nor can he touch her body without a barrier in between; because when the Nikah has ended, then the permissibility of touching her and giving her Ghusl has also ended. Therefore, he can neither touch her nor can he perform her Ghusl.

Note:

After the demise of the wife, the husband is only prohibited from giving her Ghusl and touching her; other matters, such as looking at her face, shouldering her bier and lowering her into the grave are permitted. As for that which is famous among people regarding a husband not being permitted to carry the funeral bier of his wife nor to lower her into the grave nor to look at her face is totally incorrect and baseless; they have no basis in the Shari’ah.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

The covering of a female’s hair during Salah

Question 02 :

What do the scholars of Islam and the Muftis of the mighty Shari’ah say regarding the following matter: In the matter of Satr-e-‘Awrat in Salah, is the hair of a woman that hangs down from her head considered a separate part of the body or is it a part of the hair that is on the head? Questioner: Abdullah (Lahore)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer:

In terms of Satr-e-‘Awrat, the hair that is present on a female’s head is considered to be part of the head, and the hair that hangs below the head, i.e. that which is below the ears, is considered a separate part of the body. So if during Salah, the hair up to the ears is covered but a quarter of the hanging hair became uncovered and one complete Rukn (e.g. Ruku’ or Sujood) was performed in this state or it remained uncovered for the amount of time it takes to say سبحٰن الله three times, or if she uncovered it herself without any reason, then the Salah will become void, and if the opening Takbeer was said in this state, the Salah will not even commence.

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Question 01:

What do the scholars of Islam and the Muftis of the mighty Shari’ah say regarding the following matter: A man married two women and purchased two separate houses for each wife. Both wives would live in their own homes with their children, but the husband would reside with the second wife. The husband has now passed away, and the first wife wishes to observe her ‘Iddah in the home of the second wife, as the husband lived there. Is this permissible or not? Both houses are not very distant, and there is no disagreement either; the second wife is willing to let the first wife observe the ‘Iddah in her home.

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

In the aforementioned case, each wife will observe her ‘Iddah in the home that the husband had given her to reside in. Even though the husband would live with the second wife, but he had given the first wife a separate home to reside in, therefore, the first wife will spend her ‘Iddah in the house that she resides in. She is not permitted to observe her ‘Iddah in the home of the second wife; as per shari’ah, this will be impermissible and a sin for her.

Allah Almighty states in the Holy Qur`an:

لَا تُخۡرِجُوۡہُنَّ مِنۡۢ بُیُوۡتِہِنَّ وَ لَا یَخۡرُجۡنَ اِلَّاۤ اَنۡ یَّاۡتِیۡنَ بِفَاحِشَۃٍ مُّبَیِّنَۃٍ ؕ

Do not banish them out of their (husband's) homes nor should they leave themselves during the ‘Iddah period unless this; that they commit any open indecency (adultery or theft, etc.). [Kanz-ul-Iman (translation of Quran)] (Part 28, Surah Al-Talaaq, Verse 1)

In the commentary of this verse, it is stated in Tafseerat-e-Ahmadiyyah: The word ‘بُیُوۡتِہِنَّ’ clearly indicates that the meaning of the women’s homes here is the home in which those women reside. Therefore, in the light of this verse, when a woman is divorced or her husband passes away, it is necessary upon her to observe her ‘Iddah in the home which is associated with her because of her residence therein. (Tafseerat Ahmadiyyah, p. 496)

وَ الـلّٰـهُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُهٗ اَعْلَم صَلَّى الـلّٰـهُ عَلَيْهِ وَاٰلِهٖ وَسَلَّم

Answered by:

Abu Muhammad Faraz al-Attari al-Madani

Verified by:

Abu Muhammad Mufti Ali Asghar al-Attari al-Madani

Is it permissible to wear glass bangles during the ‘Iddah?

Question 02:

What do the scholars of Islam and the Muftis of the mighty Shari’ah say regarding the following matter: Can a woman wear glass bangles when observing the ‘Iddah after the death of her husband? Questioner: Ghulam Yaseen Attari (Naya abad, Karachi)

بِسْمِ اللّٰہِ الرَّحْمٰنِ الرَّحِیْمِ وَسَلَّم

اَلْجَوَابُ بِعَوْنِ الْمَلِکِ الْوَھَّابِ اَللّٰھُمَّ ھِدَایَۃَ الْحَقِّ وَالصَّوَابِ

Answer :

No! The woman who is observing the ‘Iddah after the passing of her husband cannot wear glass bangles. This is because the ruling for a woman who is observing the ‘Iddah of a widow is that she should mourn, and the meaning of mourning is to abandon all types of adornment and beautification; and wearing glass bangles is considered to be a part of this adornment. (Al-Fatawa Hindiyyah, vol. 1, p. 533; Bahar-e-Shari’at, vol. 2, p. 242, selected).

وَاللہُ اَعْلَمُ عَزَّوَجَلَّ وَ رَسُوْلُہٗ اَعْلَم صلَّی اللہ علیہ واٰلہٖ وسلَّم

Answered by: Abu Muhammad Mufti Ali Asghar al-Attari al-Madani